(where “love” is also a noun,) must mean “act act love,” which is tautological nonsense.  Our nouns and verbs are not, in general, spelled alike; nor are the latter, in general, preceded by to; nor could a particle which may govern either, have been specifically intended, at first, to mark their difference.  By some, as we have seen, it is argued from the very sign, that the infinitive is always essentially a noun.

(2.) “The infinitive mode is the root or simple form of the verb, used to express an action or state indefinitely; as, to hear, to speak.  It is generally distinguished by the sign to.  When the particle to is employed in forming the infinitive, it is to be regarded as a part of the verb.  In every other case it is a preposition.”—­Wells’s School Grammar, 1st Ed., p. 80.  “A Preposition is a word which is used to express the relation of a noun or pronoun depending upon it, to some other word in the sentence.”—­Ib., pp. 46 and 108.  “The passive form of a verb is sometimes used in connection with a preposition, forming a compound passive verb.  Examples:—­’He was listened to without a murmur.’—­A.  H. EVERETT.  ’Nor is this enterprise to be scoffed at.’—­CHANNING.”—­Ib., p. 146.  “A verb in the infinitive usually relates to some noun or pronoun.  Thus, in the sentence, ’He desires to improve,’ the verb to improve relates to the pronoun he while it is governed by desires.”—­Ib., p. 150. “’The agent to a verb in the infinitive mode must be in the objective case.’—­NUTTING.”—­Ib., p. 148.  These citations from Wells, the last of which he quotes approvingly, by way of authority, are in many respects self-contradictory, and in nearly all respects untrue.  How can the infinitive be only “the root or simple form of the verb,” and yet consist “generally” of two distinct words, and often of three, four, or five; as, “to hear,”—­“to have heard,”—­“to be listened to,”—­“to have been listened to?” How can to be a “preposition” in the phrase, “He was listened to,” and not so at all in “to be listened to?” How does the infinitive “express an action or state indefinitely,” if it “usually relates to some noun or pronoun?” Why must its agent “be in the objective case,” if “to improve relates to the pronoun he?” Is to “in every other case a preposition,” and not such before a verb or a participle?  Must every preposition govern some “noun or pronoun?” And yet are there some prepositions which govern nothing, precede nothing?  “The door banged to behind him.”—­BLACKWELL:  Prose Edda, Sec.2.  What is to here?